Student MCQs

Student MCQs

Problem Solving Techniques MCQs with Answers

Which problem-solving technique involves breaking a problem down into smaller, more manageable parts? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves generating a large number of ideas or solutions in a short amount of time? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves learning from past experiences and applying that knowledge to solve new problems? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: d) Intuition

Which problem-solving technique involves systematically testing different solutions until the correct one is found? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: c) Trial and Error

Which problem-solving technique involves breaking a problem down into its simplest form and solving it step by step? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves using logical reasoning and deduction to arrive at a solution? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: d) Intuition

Which problem-solving technique involves using creativity and out-of-the-box thinking to come up with innovative solutions? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves analyzing the problem from different perspectives and considering multiple solutions? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves using a systematic approach to solve complex problems by breaking them down into smaller, more manageable parts? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves relying on your instincts and gut feelings to make decisions? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: d) Intuition

Which problem-solving technique involves analyzing the problem, identifying possible solutions, and weighing their pros and cons? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: c) Trial and Error

Which problem-solving technique involves working backwards from the desired outcome to determine the steps needed to achieve it? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves using a systematic approach to analyze data, identify patterns, and draw conclusions? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: d) Intuition

Which problem-solving technique involves seeking input and feedback from others to gain different perspectives and ideas? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves using a step-by-step approach and following a specific set of rules or guidelines? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves using past experiences and knowledge to find solutions to similar problems? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: d) Intuition

Which problem-solving technique involves thinking outside the box and considering unconventional solutions? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves analyzing the problem from different angles and perspectives to gain a comprehensive understanding? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves using trial and error to find the most effective solution? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: c) Trial and Error

Which problem-solving technique involves breaking a complex problem into smaller, more manageable parts and solving them individually? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves using logical reasoning and deduction to solve complex problems? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: d) Intuition

Which problem-solving technique involves generating as many ideas as possible without judgment or evaluation? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves considering the cause and effect relationship between different factors? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: c) Trial and Error

Which problem-solving technique involves analyzing the problem to identify the underlying causes and finding solutions based on that analysis? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: d) Intuition

Which problem-solving technique involves using logical reasoning and deductive thinking to solve complex problems step by step? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves seeking advice and input from others to gain different perspectives and ideas? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves breaking down a complex problem into smaller, more manageable parts and solving them one by one? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves using past experiences and knowledge to find solutions to current problems? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: d) Intuition

Which problem-solving technique involves generating multiple possible solutions and evaluating their strengths and weaknesses? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves solving a problem by working backwards from the desired outcome to the initial conditions? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves analyzing the problem by breaking it down into smaller, more manageable components? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves relying on your intuition and instinctive feeling to make decisions? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: d) Intuition

Which problem-solving technique involves generating a large number of ideas and solutions without evaluating them initially? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves considering the cause and effect relationship between different variables and factors? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: c) Trial and Error

Which problem-solving technique involves analyzing the problem from different perspectives and viewpoints to gain a comprehensive understanding? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: a) Brainstorming

Which problem-solving technique involves analyzing the problem by breaking it down into smaller, more manageable parts and solving them individually? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: b) Divide and Conquer

Which problem-solving technique involves relying on your past experiences and knowledge to find solutions to similar problems? a) Brainstorming b) Divide and Conquer c) Trial and Error d) Intuition Answer: d) Intuition

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Problem Solving Techniques

Professional development.

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12 questions

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The absolute first step of problem solving is ...

to be sure you know the answer

to be sure you've got the right cause

to be sure you are you

to be sure you've read the question

What's the most common reason for getting the wrong cause?

A problem might not have a cause at all

Fixing the symptomps will be enough

A problem might be it's own cause

There can be a common cause for two problems so we think one problem is causing the other.

What is the best type of thinking when solving a problem?

Use the logical part of your brain first, then the creative part.

Generate lots of ideas and then choose the best one.

Tap your intuition by running with the first idea that you think of. It will be the best.

Think inside the box.

When brainstorming, you should adopt this practice for the results.

Collect all the ideas, including the bad ones.

Throw out the bad ideas as you go along.

Separate the ideas generation from the judging process.

Use the same people for the idea generation and for the judging.

What should an effective problem solver keep in mind when thinking about creativity?

There are just three effective ways to increase creativity.

Creativity can help you identify a problem but not solve it.

Creativity is fixed -- you either have it or you don't

Creativity can be increased via many different techniques.

A problem can be:

An obstacle

The solution

A difficulty

The first step in solving a problem is:

Develop a solution

Reflect and review

Understand the problem

Investigate and research the problem

The solution to a problem is the

Steps you take to define the problem.

Steps you take to solve the problem.

Steps you take to make the problem worst.

Who would you ask to help you solve a problem?

Someone who solved the problem before.

Someone who failed at solving the problem.

Someone who has never experienced the problem before.

The final step to solving a problem is:

Investigate and research the problem.

Reflect and Review.

Develop a solution.

Understanding the problem means:

Figuring out the problem.

Checking to see if the problem worked.

Writing the steps to solve the problem.

Thinking of solutions.

Preparing to solve the problem might include brainstorming.

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CBSE NCERT MCQ Class 11 Computer Science Chapter 4 Introduction to Problem Solving

Certainly! Here are MCQs based on Chapter 4: Introduction to Problem Solving from CBSE NCERT Class 11 Computer Science, along with immediate explanations for each MCQ:

MCQ 1:Question: Which of the following is the first step in the problem-solving process? (a) Analyzing the problem (b) Implementing the solution (c) Defining the problem (d) Evaluating the solution Explanation: (c) Defining the problem is the first step in the problem-solving process, as it involves identifying and understanding the issue that needs to be addressed.

MCQ 2:Question: Which programming construct is used to repeat a set of instructions multiple times? (a) Conditional statement (b) Function (c) Loop (d) Variable Explanation: (c) A loop is used in programming to repeat a set of instructions multiple times, allowing for efficient and repetitive tasks.

MCQ 3:Question: What is the purpose of an algorithm in problem solving? (a) To define the problem (b) To analyze the problem (c) To provide a step-by-step solution (d) To evaluate the solution Explanation: (c) An algorithm provides a step-by-step solution to a problem, guiding the problem-solving process and ensuring a systematic approach.

MCQ 4:Question: Which of the following is an example of a high-level programming language? (a) Machine language (b) Assembly language (c) Python (d) Binary code Explanation: (c) Python is an example of a high-level programming language, which is designed to be easily understood and written by humans.

MCQ 5:Question: What term is used to describe an error in a program that causes it to behave unexpectedly or crash? (a) Syntax error (b) Runtime error (c) Logical error (d) Compilation error Explanation: (b) A runtime error is an error in a program that causes it to behave unexpectedly or crash during its execution.

MCQ 6:Question: Which programming construct is used to make decisions based on a condition? (a) Loop (b) Function (c) Conditional statement (d) Variable Explanation: (c) A conditional statement is used in programming to make decisions based on a condition, allowing different paths of execution based on the outcome.

MCQ 7:Question: What is the purpose of pseudocode in problem solving? (a) To write the final code (b) To define the problem (c) To plan the solution algorithmically (d) To test the program Explanation: (c) Pseudocode is used to plan the solution algorithmically by providing a structured, high-level representation of the code logic before writing the final code.

MCQ 8:Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-defined problem? (a) Ambiguity (b) Lack of constraints (c) Multiple solutions (d) Infeasibility Explanation: (c) A well-defined problem is characterized by having multiple solutions, as it allows for different approaches and perspectives in problem solving.

MCQ 9:Question: What term is used to describe a variable that is accessible and can be used throughout the program? (a) Global variable (b) Local variable (c) Constant variable (d) Input variable Explanation: (a) A global variable is accessible and can be used throughout the program, allowing for its value to be accessed and modified by multiple functions or parts of the code.

MCQ 10:Question: What is the purpose of testing in the problem-solving process? (a) To define the problem (b) To analyze the problem (c) To evaluate the solution (d) To implement the solution Explanation: (c) Testing is used to evaluate the solution in the problem-solving process, ensuring that it meets the desired requirements and functions correctly.

MCQ 11:Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good problem solver? (a) Rigid thinking (b) Lack of creativity (c) Persistence (d) Dependency on others Explanation: (c) Persistence is a characteristic of a good problem solver, as it involves staying determined and motivated to find solutions, even when faced with challenges or setbacks.

MCQ 12:Question: Which type of programming error is detected by the compiler? (a) Syntax error (b) Runtime error (c) Logical error (d) Compilation error Explanation: (a) A syntax error is detected by the compiler, as it involves violations of the programming language’s rules and structure.

MCQ 13:Question: What term is used to describe a problem that can be solved by a computer algorithm? (a) Feasible problem (b) Infeasible problem (c) Ill-structured problem (d) Ambiguous problem Explanation: (a) A feasible problem is one that can be solved by a computer algorithm, as it has a defined and attainable solution.

MCQ 14:Question: What is the purpose of flowcharts in problem solving? (a) To define the problem (b) To write the final code (c) To visualize the program’s execution flow (d) To test the program Explanation: (c) Flowcharts are used to visualize the program’s execution flow, providing a graphical representation of the sequence of steps and decision points in the code.

MCQ 15:Question: Which of the following is an example of an input device? (a) Printer (b) Monitor (c) Keyboard (d) Hard drive Explanation: (c) A keyboard is an example of an input device, as it allows users to input data and commands into the computer system.

MCQ 16:Question: What is the purpose of documentation in problem solving? (a) To define the problem (b) To analyze the problem (c) To explain the solution and code (d) To test the program Explanation: (c) Documentation is used to explain the solution and code in problem solving, providing a detailed description and instructions for understanding and using the program.

MCQ 17:Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of an ill-structured problem? (a) Clear constraints and requirements (b) Single correct solution (c) Lack of ambiguity (d) Multiple possible interpretations Explanation: (d) An ill-structured problem is characterized by multiple possible interpretations, as it lacks clear constraints and requirements, requiring creative and flexible problem-solving approaches.

MCQ 18:Question: What is the purpose of debugging in the problem-solving process? (a) To define the problem (b) To analyze the problem (c) To find and fix errors in the program (d) To evaluate the solution Explanation: (c) Debugging is used to find and fix errors in the program during the problem-solving process, ensuring that the code functions correctly and produces the desired output. Note: The explanations provided here are brief and intended to provide immediate understanding. For a comprehensive understanding of the topics, it is recommended to refer to the CBSE NCERT Class 11 Computer Science textbook and additional study materials.

CBSE NCERT Class 11 Computer Science chapter 4. Introduction to Problem Solving. MCQ Questions, Chapter MCQ, MCQ Pdf, Multiple Choice Questions.

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Steps in Problem Solving MCQ Quiz PDF Download : Computer Fundamentals MCQs

MCQ 1 : Last step in process of problem solving is to

MCQ 2 : Second step in problem solving process is to

MCQ 3 : Thing to keep in mind while solving a problem is

MCQ 4 : First step in process of problem solving is to

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Essential Psychology

Student resources, multiple choice questions.

1. The Tower of London problem-solving task was developed by

  • Shackleton (1982)
  • Shallice (1982)
  • Sheriff (1982)
  • Sherrington (1982)

2. The process of breaking down goals into subgoals is termed

  • means–ends analysis
  • initial-desired state analysis
  • subgoal appropriation
  • subgoal potentiation

3. According to Newell and Simon, a problem-solver

  • analyzes all possible solutions before beginning
  • attempts to resolve differences between problem states
  • works backwards from the goal state
  • prioritizes subgoals

4. What computer programme did Newell and Simon create to validate their theory?

  • general purpose solution
  • general problem solver
  • enigma machine

5. A challenge to Newell and Simon’s problem-solving theory is that

  • experts mostly use means–ends analysis
  • novices mostly use means–ends analysis
  • experts do not always use means–ends analysis
  • novices do not always use means–ends analysis

6. Answers that appear out of the blue to solve problems are

7. Difficulty seeing the solution to a problem is

  • means analysis

8. Which is NOT a type of reasoning?

  • probabilistic

9. Bayes’ theorem can be used to calculate

  • possibility
  • probability
  • information criterion
  • means–ends differences

10. A heuristic is

  • a rule of thumb

CBSE Skill Education

Introduction to Problem Solving Class 11 MCQ

Teachers and Examiners ( CBSESkillEduction ) collaborated to create the Introduction to Problem Solving Class 11 MCQ . All the important Information are taken from the NCERT Textbook Computer Science (083) class 11 .

1. Computers cannot solve problems on their own. We must provide clear, step-by-step directions on how to solve the issue, this solving technique is known as ____________. a. Problem Solving  b. Problem Addressing c. Problem Analysis d. None of the above

2. ___________ is the process of identifying a problem, developing an algorithm for the identified problem and finally implementing the algorithm to develop a computer program. a. Problem Solving  b. Problem Addressing c. Problem Analysis d. None of the above

3. It is essential to device a solution before writing a program code for a given problem. The solution is represented in natural language and is called an ___________. a. Problem b. Algorithm  c. Problem Analysis d. None of the above

4. After finalizing the algorithm, we need to convert the algorithm into the_________. a. Format which can be understood by the computer b. High level programming language c. Both a) and b)  d. None of the above

5. What are the different type of testing. a. Component testing b. Integration testing c. System testing & Acceptance testing d. All of the above 

6. The developed programme needs to pass different parameter __________. The programme needs to fulfil the user’s requirements. It must respond in the anticipated amount of time. a. Method b. Testing  c. Error d. None of the above

7. To complete each activity in a computer, we follow a sequence of steps. This sequence of steps is known as ________. a. Problem b. Algorithm  c. Problem Analysis d. None of the above

8. ____________ is the act of locating and fixing problems in software code that could lead to unexpected behavior or crashes. These errors are sometimes referred to as “bugs.” a. Algorithm b. Problem Solving c. Debugging  d. All of the above

9. Why do we need an Algorithm? a. Accuracy b. Minimized mistakes c. Best possible solution d. All of the above 

10. Writing an algorithm is mostly considered as a ________. a. First step of programming  b. Second step of programming c. Third step of programming d. None of the above

11. Purpose of using algorithm? a. Increase the reliability b. Accuracy of the program c. Efficiency of obtaining solutions d. All of the above 

12. Characteristics of a good algorithm. a. Precision & Uniqueness b. Finiteness c. Input & Output d. All of the above 

13. Before implementing algorithm, the programmer should __________ first. a. Analyze the problem b. Identify the problem c. Both a) and b)  d. None of the above

14. A __________ is a visual representation of an algorithm. a. Flowchart  b. Pseudocode c. Algorithm d. None of the above

15. A flowchart is a diagram made up of __________. a. Boxes b. Diamonds c. Shapes d. All of the above 

16. Start/End also called _________ symbol, it indicates where the flow starts and ends. a. Terminator  b. Decision c. Input / Output d. Arrow

17. Process is also called ________, it represents a process, action, or a single step. a. Terminator b. Action Symbol  c. Decision d. Input/ Output

18. A __________ or branching point, usually a yes/no or true/ false question is asked, and based on the answer, the path gets split into two branches. a. Terminator b. Action Symbol c. Decision  d. Input/ Output

19. _________ is also called data symbol, this parallelogram shape is used to input or output data. a. Terminator b. Action Symbol c. Decision d. Input/ Output 

20. ___________ connector to show order of flow between shapes. a. Terminator b. Action Symbol c. Decision d. Arrow 

21. A ___________ is another way of representing an algorithm. It is considered as a non-formal language that helps programmers to write algorithm. a. Flowchart b. Pseudocode  c. Algorithm d. None of the above

22. The word “pseudocode” means ___________. a. Not real code  b. Real code c. Temporary code d. None of the above

23. It is necessary to run different input values through the algorithm’s phases in order to verify. This process of taking an input and running it through all of the algorithm’s steps is commonly referred to as a _______. a. Code b. Dry run  c. Method d. None of the above

24. Dry run will help us to __________. a. Identify any incorrect steps in the algorithm b. Figure out missing details or specifics in the algorithm c. Both a) and b)  d. None of the above

25. algorithms can be ___________ on the basis of the amount of processing time they need to run and the amount of memory that is needed to execute the algorithm. a. Compared b. Analyzed c. Both a) and b)  d. None of the above

26. ___________ is the set of rules or grammar that governs the formulation of the statements in the language, such as spellings, order of words, punctuation, etc. a. Analyzed b. Syntax  c. Code d. None of the above

27. Programs written using ________ are directly understood by the computer hardware, but they are difficult to deal with and comprehend by humans. a. High Level Language b. Binary Digit  c. 4GL Language d. None of the above

28. A program written in a high-level language is called ___________. a. Source code  b. Object c. Machine language d. None of the above

29. What type of problems are solved by computer. a. Easy problem b. Complex problem c. Both a) and b)  d. None of the above

30. The basic idea of solving a complex problem by decomposition is to __________. a. Decompose b. Break down c. Complex problem into smaller sub problems d. All of the above 

31. An algorithm is defined as a _________ procedure designed to perform an operation which will lead to the desired result, if followed correctly. a. Reverse procedure b. Step-by-step procedure  c. Random procedure d. None of the above

32. Algorithms have a definite ________ and a definite ________, and a finite number of steps. a. Middle & End b. Beginning & End  c. Beginning & Middle d. None of the above

33. A good algorithm, which is __________, receives input and produces an output. a. Precise b. Unique c. Finite d. All of the above 

34. In order to write effective algorithms we need to identify the__________ to be followed and the desired output. a. Input b. Process c. Both a) and b)  d. None of the above

35. A flowchart is a type of diagram that represents the algorithm graphically using boxes of various kinds, in an order connected by arrows. a. Flowchart  b. Algorithm c. Pseudocode d. None of the above

36. An _________ where all the steps are executed one after the other is said to execute in sequence. a. Flowchart b. Algorithm  c. Pseudocode d. None of the above

37. _________ making involves selection of one of the alternatives based on outcome of a condition. a. Terminator b. Action Symbol c. Decision  d. Arrow

38. An _________ may have a certain set of steps, which are repeating for a finite number of times, such an algorithm is said to be iterative. a. Flowchart b. Algorithm  c. Pseudocode d. None of the above

39. There can be __________ approach to solve a problem and hence we can have more than one algorithm for a particular problem. a. Only one b. More than one  c. No approach d. None of the above

40. The choice of __________ should be made on the basis of time and space complexity. a. Flowchart b. Algorithm  c. Pseudocode d. None of the above

Computer Science Class 11 Notes

  • Unit 1 : Basic Computer Organisation
  • Unit 1 : Encoding Schemes and Number System
  • Unit 2 : Introduction to problem solving
  • Unit 2 : Getting Started with Python
  • Unit 2 : Conditional statement and Iterative statements in Python
  • Unit 2 : Function in Python
  • Unit 2 : String in Python
  • Unit 2 : Lists in Python
  • Unit 2 : Tuples in Python
  • Unit 2 : Dictionary in Python
  • Unit 3 : Society, Law and Ethics

Computer Science Class 11 MCQ

Computer science class 11 ncert solutions.

  • Unit 2 : Tuples and Dictionary in Python

StackHowTo

  • Algorithms MCQ Questions and Answers – Fundamentals – Part 1

C omputer architecture MCQ questions and answers for the preparation of tests, exams, and certifications. So you will find questions about loops and conditionals, data structure, complexity, flowchart, pseudocode, and much more. This systematic learning method will easily prepare anyone to pass their exam.  

1. What is an algorithm?

A A flowchart

B A flowchart or pseudocode

C A decision

D Step by step instructions used to solve a problem

2. What are the three algorithm constructions?

A Input, Output, Process

B Sequence, Selection, Repeat

C Input/Output, Decision, Repeat

D Loop, Input/Output, Process

  • Repetition.

   

3. What is the difference between a flowchart and a pseudocode?

A A flowchart is a diagram while the pseudocode is written in a programming language (e.g. Pascal or Java)

B A flowchart is textual but the pseudocode is a diagram

C A flowchart is a schematic description of an algorithm, while pseudocode is a textual description of an algorithm.

D A flowchart and a pseudocode are the same

4. In a flowchart, an input or output instruction is represented by _____?

A A diamond

B Rectangle

C Parallelogram

which is the first step in problem solving mcq

5. In a flowchart, a calculation (process) is represented by _____?

which is the first step in problem solving mcq

6. To repeat a task, we use a ____?

B Condition

7. If ....... then ....... else ....... End If check ____?

A Only one condition

B Two conditions

C Three conditions

D Multiple conditions

8. REPEAT <processing> UNTIL <condition> is a ______?

A Positive loop

The following example uses the REPEAT UNTIL structure to read and validate a positive value:

which is the first step in problem solving mcq

    9. A flowchart should represent the situation in which, for each grade, a student receives a “Good” or ” Average” the system will consider the grade and if it is equal to or greater than 12, assigns a “Good” grade, otherwise it assigns a “Passable” grade. Which of the following options will be used?   A Input

10. What is a Flowchart?

A A way to design a text-based algorithm

B A specific programming language

C A diagram that represents a set of instructions

D A scheme of instructions

mcq

Algorithms MCQ Questions and Answers – Fundamentals – Part 2

  • Algorithms MCQ Questions and Answers – Fundamentals – Part 3

Algorithms MCQ – Data Structures & Complexity – Part 1

  • Algorithms MCQ – Data Structures & Complexity – Part 2

Algorithms MCQ – Data Structures & Complexity – Part 3

  • Algorithms MCQ – Data Structures & Complexity – Part 4
  • MS Word MCQ Questions and Answers – Part 6

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Algorithms MCQ Questions and Answers - Fundamentals - Part 1

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Fundamentals of algorithms and problem-solving mcqs.

Home » Computer Science MCQs Sets » Computer Basics MCQs » Fundamentals of Algorithms and problem-solving MCQs

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1. Which graph algorithm can be used to find the longest path in a directed acyclic graph (DAG)?

  • Depth-first search (DFS)
  • Breadth-first search (BFS)
  • Topological sort
  • Dijkstra's algorithm

Topological sort can be used to find the longest path in a directed acyclic graph (DAG).

2. What does "brute force" mean in the context of problem-solving?

  • Using the most complex approach to solve a problem
  • Trying all possible solutions without optimization
  • Solving problems without a plan
  • Applying advanced mathematics to solve a problem

"Brute force" in problem-solving means trying all possible solutions without optimization.

3. What is "trial and error" as a problem-solving strategy?

  • A systematic approach to problem-solving
  • Randomly trying different solutions until one works
  • A method used only in mathematics
  • A formal proof technique

"Trial and error" as a problem-solving strategy involves randomly trying different solutions until one succeeds.

4. What is "divide and conquer" as a problem-solving technique?

  • A strategy that avoids breaking problems into smaller subproblems
  • A strategy that involves solving the largest subproblem first
  • A strategy that breaks a problem into smaller subproblems and solves them independently
  • A strategy that only works for small-scale problems

"Divide and conquer" is a problem-solving technique that breaks a problem into smaller subproblems and solves them independently.

5. In problem-solving, what is a "heuristic"?

  • An optimal solution to a problem
  • A rule of thumb or a practical approach to find a solution
  • A random choice among multiple solutions

A heuristic is a rule of thumb or a practical approach used to find a solution in problem-solving.

6. What is "trial division" as a technique in number theory and prime factorization?

  • A method to find the smallest prime number
  • A method to verify if a number is prime by dividing it by smaller primes
  • A method to find the largest prime number
  • A method to add prime numbers

"Trial division" is a technique in number theory and prime factorization used to verify if a number is prime by dividing it by smaller primes.

7. What is the primary purpose of "backtracking" in problem-solving?

  • To find the optimal solution
  • To explore all possible solutions systematically
  • To avoid exploring all possible solutions
  • To simplify the problem

The primary purpose of "backtracking" in problem-solving is to explore all possible solutions systematically, typically in a recursive manner.

8. What is an algorithm?

  • A data structure used to store information
  • A sequence of steps to solve a problem
  • A programming language
  • A type of computer hardware

An algorithm is a sequence of steps or instructions designed to solve a specific problem or perform a task.

9. What is the primary goal of algorithm analysis?

  • To design algorithms
  • To implement algorithms
  • To compare algorithms and evaluate their efficiency
  • To debug algorithms

The primary goal of algorithm analysis is to compare algorithms and evaluate their efficiency.

10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good algorithm?

  • Clarity and simplicity
  • Efficiency in terms of time and space
  • The use of complex data structures
  • Correctness

A good algorithm is characterized by clarity, simplicity, efficiency, and correctness. Complex data structures may be used if necessary, but simplicity is preferred.

11. What is the purpose of pseudocode in algorithm development?

  • To hide the algorithm's logic
  • To provide a step-by-step implementation guide
  • To obfuscate the algorithm
  • To prevent others from understanding the algorithm

Pseudocode is used to provide a step-by-step implementation guide for an algorithm, making it easier to understand and develop.

12. Which algorithm design technique involves breaking a problem into smaller subproblems and solving each subproblem recursively?

  • Divide and conquer
  • Dynamic programming
  • Greedy algorithm
  • Backtracking

The "divide and conquer" algorithm design technique involves breaking a problem into smaller subproblems and solving each subproblem recursively.

13. What is the time complexity of an algorithm?

  • The number of steps required to execute the algorithm
  • The amount of memory used by the algorithm
  • The analysis of the algorithm's efficiency in terms of input size
  • The number of loops in the algorithm

Time complexity is the analysis of an algorithm's efficiency in terms of input size.

14. What is the "Big O notation" used for in algorithm analysis?

  • To measure the algorithm's popularity
  • To describe the algorithm's internal details
  • To express the upper bound of an algorithm's time complexity
  • To provide pseudocode for the algorithm

The Big O notation is used to express the upper bound of an algorithm's time complexity.

15. Which of the following time complexities represents the most efficient algorithm?

O(1) represents constant time complexity, which is the most efficient algorithm in terms of time.

16. What is the space complexity of an algorithm?

  • The analysis of the algorithm's efficiency in terms of output size

Space complexity is the amount of memory used by the algorithm.

17. What does "optimization" refer to in the context of algorithms?

  • The process of making an algorithm more complex
  • The process of making an algorithm run slower
  • The process of improving an algorithm's efficiency
  • The process of making an algorithm more obscure

Optimization in the context of algorithms refers to the process of improving an algorithm's efficiency.

18. Which searching algorithm works by repeatedly dividing the search range in half until the target element is found?

  • Linear search
  • Binary search
  • Quick search
  • Merge search

Binary search works by repeatedly dividing the search range in half until the target element is found.

19. Which sorting algorithm has an average time complexity of O(n log n) and is often used for large datasets?

  • Bubble sort
  • Insertion sort
  • Selection sort

Merge sort has an average time complexity of O(n log n) and is efficient for large datasets.

20. What is the primary advantage of quicksort over some other sorting algorithms like bubble sort and insertion sort?

  • Quicksort always has a time complexity of O(1).
  • Quicksort is a stable sorting algorithm.
  • Quicksort has an average time complexity of O(n log n).
  • Quicksort uses fewer comparisons.

Quicksort has an average time complexity of O(n log n), which is more efficient than the average case time complexity of bubble sort and insertion sort.

21. Which sorting algorithm repeatedly selects the smallest element from the unsorted part of the array and places it at the beginning of the sorted part?

Selection sort repeatedly selects the smallest element from the unsorted part and places it at the beginning of the sorted part.

22. What is the time complexity of the bubble sort algorithm in the worst-case scenario?

The worst-case time complexity of the bubble sort algorithm is O(n^2).

23. What data structure represents a collection of nodes connected by edges, where each edge has a direction?

  • Linked list

A graph represents a collection of nodes connected by edges, where edges can have directions.

24. In a binary tree, how many children can each node have at most?

In a binary tree, each node can have at most two children: a left child and a right child.

25. What is the root node in a tree data structure?

  • The node with the highest value
  • The first node in the tree
  • The node with the lowest value
  • The topmost node from which all other nodes descend

The root node in a tree data structure is the topmost node from which all other nodes descend.

26. Which traversal method starts from the root node and explores as far as possible along each branch before backtracking?

  • Inorder traversal
  • Preorder traversal
  • Postorder traversal
  • Depth-first traversal

Preorder traversal starts from the root node and explores as far as possible along each branch before backtracking.

27. What is a common application of breadth-first search (BFS) in graph algorithms?

  • Finding the shortest path between two nodes
  • Sorting the nodes in a graph
  • Calculating the depth of a tree
  • Traversing a tree in preorder

A common application of breadth-first search (BFS) is finding the shortest path between two nodes in a graph.

28. What is dynamic programming commonly used for in algorithm design?

  • Solving problems that cannot be solved by algorithms
  • Solving problems by breaking them into smaller subproblems and caching their solutions
  • Creating algorithms without any optimization
  • Generating random solutions to problems

Dynamic programming is commonly used for solving problems by breaking them into smaller subproblems and caching their solutions to avoid redundant computation.

29. What is memoization in the context of dynamic programming?

  • A technique for generating random numbers
  • A method for optimizing algorithms using parallel processing
  • Caching and reusing previously computed results to avoid redundant calculations
  • A type of sorting algorithm

Memoization in dynamic programming involves caching and reusing previously computed results to avoid redundant calculations.

30. Which dynamic programming technique typically uses a table to store and retrieve solutions to subproblems?

  • Memoization

Tabulation is a dynamic programming technique that typically uses a table to store and retrieve solutions to subproblems.

31. In dynamic programming, what does "optimal substructure" mean?

  • The process of finding the best algorithm
  • The property that the optimal solution to a problem can be constructed from the optimal solutions of its subproblems
  • The use of greedy algorithms
  • The analysis of algorithm efficiency

Optimal substructure is the property that the optimal solution to a problem can be constructed from the optimal solutions of its subproblems.

32. What is the primary advantage of dynamic programming over brute-force methods?

  • Dynamic programming always produces the correct result.
  • Dynamic programming is faster.
  • Dynamic programming requires less memory.
  • Dynamic programming optimally solves all problems.

The primary advantage of dynamic programming is that it is often faster than brute-force methods because it avoids redundant computations.

33. What is a greedy algorithm in algorithm design?

  • An algorithm that always selects the largest available option
  • An algorithm that makes a series of choices, each one being the best decision at the moment
  • An algorithm that never backtracks
  • An algorithm that solves problems by brute force

A greedy algorithm makes a series of choices, each being the best decision at the moment, with the hope of finding a globally optimal solution.

34. In the context of greedy algorithms, what is a "greedy choice property"?

  • The property that a locally optimal choice leads to a globally optimal solution
  • The property that a greedy algorithm is always the best choice
  • The property that a greedy algorithm never makes a mistake
  • The property that a greedy algorithm selects the largest option first

The greedy choice property states that a locally optimal choice in a greedy algorithm leads to a globally optimal solution.

35. Which classic greedy algorithm is used to solve the problem of finding the minimum number of coins needed to make change for a given amount of money?

  • Kruskal's algorithm
  • Huffman coding
  • Coin change algorithm

The coin change algorithm is used to find the minimum number of coins needed to make change for a given amount of money.

36. What is the primary drawback of greedy algorithms?

  • They are slow and inefficient.
  • They can sometimes lead to suboptimal solutions.
  • They require a lot of memory.
  • They are difficult to implement.

The primary drawback of greedy algorithms is that they can sometimes lead to suboptimal solutions because they make locally optimal choices at each step.

37. What is a "cycle" in a directed graph?

  • A path that visits every node exactly once
  • A path that visits the same node twice or more, starting and ending at the same node
  • A path that visits every node in the graph
  • A path that visits all leaf nodes

In a directed graph, a cycle is a path that visits the same node twice or more, starting and ending at the same node.

38. Which algorithm is commonly used to find the shortest path between nodes in a weighted graph?

Dijkstra's algorithm is commonly used to find the shortest path between nodes in a weighted graph.

39. What is a "topological sort" of a directed acyclic graph (DAG)?

  • An arrangement of nodes in ascending order based on their values
  • An arrangement of nodes in descending order based on their values
  • A linear ordering of nodes such that for every directed edge (u, v), node u comes before node v
  • A linear ordering of nodes that connects all nodes in a graph

A topological sort of a directed acyclic graph (DAG) is a linear ordering of nodes such that for every directed edge (u, v), node u comes before node v.

40. What is a "spanning tree" of a graph?

  • A tree that includes all nodes of the graph
  • A tree with the fewest number of nodes
  • A tree with the most number of nodes
  • A tree with no nodes

A spanning tree of a graph is a tree that includes all nodes of the graph.

41. In dynamic programming, what is "bottom-up" or "tabulation" approach?

  • Starting with the largest subproblems and solving them first
  • Starting with the smallest subproblems and solving them first
  • Starting with the middle-sized subproblems and solving them first
  • Starting with the most complex subproblems and solving them first

The "bottom-up" or "tabulation" approach in dynamic programming starts with the smallest subproblems and solves them first, building up to the larger problem.

42. In dynamic programming, what is the "optimal substructure" property?

  • The property that an algorithm always produces the optimal solution
  • The property that an algorithm never uses subproblems
  • The property that the optimal solution can be constructed from optimal solutions of subproblems
  • The property that subproblems cannot be solved independently

The "optimal substructure" property in dynamic programming states that the optimal solution can be constructed from optimal solutions of subproblems.

43. What is the purpose of a "memoization table" in dynamic programming?

  • To store the algorithm's pseudocode
  • To store the names of subproblems
  • To cache and retrieve previously computed results of subproblems
  • To store debugging information

A memoization table in dynamic programming is used to cache and retrieve previously computed results of subproblems to avoid redundant calculations.

44. What is the "overlap" property in dynamic programming?

  • The property that two subproblems share a common solution
  • The property that subproblems do not share any common elements
  • The property that all subproblems have identical solutions

The "overlap" property in dynamic programming refers to the property that two or more subproblems share a common solution, leading to the need for memoization.

45. In the context of dynamic programming, what is "pruning"?

  • The process of removing nodes from a graph
  • The process of reducing the complexity of an algorithm
  • The process of removing unnecessary branches from a search
  • The process of rearranging data structures

In dynamic programming, pruning is the process of removing unnecessary branches from a search to reduce computational effort.

46. Which dynamic programming technique uses a bottom-up approach and fills a table iteratively to solve problems?

  • Greedy approach

The tabulation technique in dynamic programming uses a bottom-up approach and fills a table iteratively to solve problems.

47. What is a "weighted graph" in graph theory?

  • A graph with no edges
  • A graph in which each edge has a numerical weight or cost
  • A graph with a large number of nodes
  • A directed graph

A weighted graph is a graph in which each edge has a numerical weight or cost associated with it.

48. Which graph algorithm is used to find the minimum spanning tree of a weighted, connected graph?

  • Bellman-Ford algorithm

Kruskal's algorithm is used to find the minimum spanning tree of a weighted, connected graph.

49. What is a "strongly connected component" in a directed graph?

  • A component that contains only one node
  • A component in which any two nodes are connected by a single edge
  • A component in which there is a directed path from any node to any other node
  • A component with the fewest edges

A strongly connected component in a directed graph is a component in which there is a directed path from any node to any other node within the component.

50. What is a "cycle detection" algorithm used for in graph theory?

  • Detecting loops or cycles in a graph
  • Finding the maximum flow in a network

A cycle detection algorithm is used to detect loops or cycles in a graph.

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Home » Management Information System » MIS MCQ

MCQ | Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) in MIS

MIS Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MCQ: This section contains the Multiple-Choice Questions & Answers on Systems Development Life Cycle with explanations. Submitted by IncludeHelp , on April 14, 2021

1. With reference to System development, SDLC is an acronym of System Development Life Cycle.

Answer: A) True

Explanation:

SDLC is an acronym of System Development Life Cycle.

2. System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is___ used by the system experts to design a system.

  • A processor
  • None of these

Answer: B) A process

The System Development Lifecycle (SDLC) is a framework which is used to produce high-quality systems in a systematic and cost-effective way. System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a process used by the system experts to design a system.

3. ___ is / are the most important and fundamental phases of SDLC.

  • Preliminary investigation
  • Requirement Analysis
  • Design, Testing and Implementation
  • All of the mentioned above

Answer: D) All of the mentioned above

Preliminary investigation, Requirement Analysis, Design, Testing and Implementation are the most important and fundamental stage in SDLC. If a system built using these phases, its life cycle will be long.

4. Identify missing SDLC phase, Problem identification → Requirement analysis → ___ → Implementation → Testing → Deployment Maintenance

  • System print
  • System design
  • System hardware
  • None of the mentioned above

Answer: B) System design

The correct sequence is as follows – Problem identification → Requirement analysis → System design → Implementation → Testing → Deployment Maintenance

5. SDLC models are also referred as ___

  • Spiral Model
  • Big Bang Model
  • System Development Process Models

Answer: C) System Development Process Models

SDLC models are also referred as System Development Process Models.

6. The Waterfall Model was the ___ Process Model.

Answer: A) First

The Waterfall Model was the first Process Model.

7. SDLC is ___ process for building System.

  • Non systematic
  • A systematic

Answer: C) A systematic

SDLC is a systematic process for building System.

8. The SDLC involves ___ as explained.

  • Seven phases

Answer: B) Seven phases

The SDLC involves six phases which are as Problem identification, Requirement analysis, System design, Implementation, Testing, Deployment and Maintenance.

9. SDLC works by ___ of System development.

  • Lowering the cost
  • Higher in the cost
  • Average in the cost

Answer: A) Lowering the cost

SDLC works by lowering the cost of System development. SDLC can be considered as a process of improving quality and shortening production time.

10. A System life cycle model describes ___ criteria for each phase.

  • Up and down
  • Pull and push
  • Entry and exit

Answer: C) Entry and exit

A System life cycle model describes entry and exit criteria for the development phase.

11. Economic feasibility is a study to complete the project within the budget.

Economic feasibility is a study to complete the project within the budget. Economic feasibility is a form of cost-benefit analysis of the project under consideration that determines whether it can be implemented.

12. The ___ phase of SDLC concerns with the integration of system elements.

  • Implementation
  • Requirement

Answer: A) Implementation

The implementation phase of SDLC concerns with the integration of system elements.

13. System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) aims to produce a ___ system.

  • Low quality
  • Average Quality
  • High-quality

Answer: C) High-quality

System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) aims to produce a high-quality system.

14. In SDLC, Problem identification,

  • This is the first and initial phase of SDLC.
  • identify the real problem for which they want a solution
  • It takes time to problem identification

This is the first and initial phase of SDLC. This phase mainly deals with the analyst, identify the real problem for which the solution is needed, if the problem is significant then the solution will be useful.

15. In SDLC, after getting the problem identification, Requirement analysis begins.

Requirement analysis is a second phase of SDLC. After successful completion of problem identification, Requirement analysis begins.

16. The requirement analysis is a detailed analysis which includes the answer of,

  • What is the problem? What is the solution? Is solution feasible?
  • How much time required solving the problem? How it will be resolved?
  • How many resources will be required?

The requirement analysis is a detailed analysis which includes the answer to different questions like what is the problem., What is the solution? Is solution feasible? How much time required solving the problem? How it will be resolved? How many resources will be required? Do we have sufficient resources to solve the problem? and what kind of environment required by solution?

17. With reference to System design, which of the following is correct,

  • System design is a blueprint of proposed solution
  • It creates logical design
  • If any changes required, analysts redesign it.

System design is a blueprint of proposed solution. It involves logical design, if any changes required, analysts redesign it.

18. Physical design shows a relationship between different components of the system according to it's ___.

  • Logical design
  • Physical design
  • Abstract view

Answer: A) Logical design

Physical design shows a relationship between different components of the system according to its Logical design.

19. ___ is a SDLC phase which deploys the software to the production environment so users can start using the product.

Answer: A) Deployment

Deployment is a SDLC phase which deploys the software to the production environment so users can start using the product.

20. ___ of the system gives long life to the new system.

  • Maintenance

Answer: B) Maintenance

Maintenance of the system gives long life to the new system.

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  • v.13(3); Sep-Dec 2006

GUIDELINES FOR THE CONSTRUCTION OF MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS TESTS

Mohammed o. al-rukban.

Department of Family & Community Medicine, College of Medicine and King Khalid University Hospital, King Saud University, Riyadh, Saudi Arabia

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) are generally recognized as the most widely applicable and useful type of objective test items. They could be used to measure the most important educational outcomes - knowledge, understanding, judgment and problem solving. The objective of this paper is to give guidelines for the construction of MCQs tests. This includes the construction of both “single best option” type, and “extended matching item” type. Some templates for use in the “single best option” type of questions are recommended.

INTRODUCTION

In recent years, there has been much discussion about what should be taught to medical students and how they should be assessed. In addition, highly publicized instances of the poor performance of medical doctors have fuelled the drive to find a way for ensuring that qualified doctors achieve and maintain appropriate knowledge, skills and attitudes throughout their working lives. 1

Selecting an assessment method for measuring students’ performance remains a daunting task for many medical institutions. 2 Assessment should be educational and formative if it is going to promote appropriate learning. It is important that individuals learn from any assessment process and receive feedback on which to build their knowledge and skills. It is also important for an assessment to have a summative function to demonstrate competence. 1

Assessment may act as a trigger, informing examinees what instructors really regard as important 3 and the value they attach to different forms of knowledge and ways of thinking. In fact, assessment has been identified as possibly the single most potent influence on student learning; narrowing students’ focus only on topics to be tested on (i.e. what is to be studied) and shaping their learning approaches (i.e. how it is going to be studied). 4 Students have been found to differ in the quality of their learning when instructed to focus either on factual details or on the assessment of evidence. 5 Furthermore, research has reported that changes in assessment methods have been found to influence medical students to alter their study activities. 4 As methods of assessment drive learning in medicine and other disciplines, 1 it is important that the assessment tools test the attributes required of students or professionals undergoing revalidation. Staff subsequently, redesign their methods of assessment to ensure a match between assessment forms and their educational goals. 6

Methods of assessment of medical students and practicing doctors have changed considerably during the last 5 decades. 7 No single method is appropriate, however, for assessing all the skills, knowledge and attitudes needed in medicine, so a combination of assessment techniques will always be required. 8 – 10

When designing assessments of medical competencies, a number of issues need to be addressed; reliability, which refers to the reproducibility or consistency of a test score, validity, which refers to the extent to which a test measures what it purports to measure, 11 , 12 and standard setting which defines the endpoint of the assessment. 1 Sources of the evidence of validity are related to the content, response process, internal structure, relationship to other variables, and consequences of the assessment scores. 13

Validity requires the selection of appropriate test formats for the competencies to be tested. This invariably requires a composite examination. Reliability, however, requires an adequate sample of the necessary knowledge, skills, and attitudes to be tested.

However, measuring students’ performances is not the sole determinant for choosing an assessment method. Other factors such as cost, suitability, and safety have profound influences on the selection of an assessment method and, most probably, constitute the major reason for inter-institutional variations for the selection of assessment methods as well success rates. 14

Examiners need to use a variety of test formats when organizing test papers; each format being selected on account of its strength as regards to validity, reliability, objectivity and feasibility. 15

For as long as there is a need to test knowledge in the assessment of doctors and medical undergraduates, multiple choice questions (MCQs) will always play a role as a component in the assessment of clinical competence. 16

Multiple choice questions were introduced into medical examinations in the 1950s and have been shown to be more reliable in testing knowledge than the traditional essay questions. It represents one of the most important well-established examination tools widely used in assessment at the undergraduate and postgraduate levels of medical examinations. The MCQ is an objective question for which there is prior agreement on what constitutes the correct answer. This widespread use may have led examiners to use the term MCQ as synonym to an objective question. 15 Since their introduction, there have been many modifications to MCQs resulting in formats. 16 Like other methods of assessment, they have their strengths and weaknesses. Scoring of the questions is easy and reliable, and their use permits a wide sampling of student's knowledge in an examination of reasonable duration. 15 – 19 MCQ-based exams are also reliable because they are time-efficient and a short exam still allows a breadth of sampling of any topic. 19 Well-constructed MCQs can also assess taxonomically higher-order cognitive processing such as interpretation, synthesis and application of knowledge rather than the test of recall of isolated facts. 20 They could test a number of skills in addition to the recall of factual knowledge, and are reliable, discriminatory, reproducible and cost-effective. It is generally, agreed that MCQs should not be used as a sole assessment method in summative examinations, but alongside other test forms. They are designed to broaden the range of skills to be tested during all phases of medical education, whether undergraduate, postgraduate or continuing. 21

Though writing the questions requires considerable effort, their high objectivity makes it possible for the results to be released immediately after marking by anyone including a machine. 15 , 18 This facilitates the computerized analysis of the raw data and allows the examining body to compare the performance of either the group or an individual with that of past candidates by the use of discriminator questions. 22 Ease of marking by computer makes MCQs an ideal method for assessing the knowledge of a large number of candidates. 16 , 22

However, a notable concern of many health professionals is that they are frequently faced with the task of constructing tests with little or no experience or training on how to perform this task. Examiners need to spend considerable time and effort to produce satisfactory questions. 15

The objective of this paper is to describe guidelines for the construction of two common MCQs types: the “single best option” type, and “extended matching item” type. Available templates for the “single best option” type will be discussed.

Single Best Option

The first step for writing any exam is to have a blueprint (table of specifications). Blueprinting is the planning of the test against the learning objectives of a course or competencies essential to a specialty. 1 A test blueprint is a guide used for creating a balanced examination and consists of a list of the competencies and topics (with specified weight for each) that should be tested on an examination, as in the example presented in Table 1 .

Example of a table of specifications (Blueprint) based on the context, for Internal Medicine examination

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Object name is JFCM-13-125-g001.jpg

If there is no blueprint, the examination committee should decide on the system to be tested by brainstorming to produce a list of possible topics/themes for question items. For example, abdominal pain, back pain, chest pain, dizziness, fatigue, fever, etc, 23 and then select one theme (topic) from the list. When choosing a topic for a question, the focus should be on one important concept, typically a common or a serious and treatable clinical problem from the specialty. After choosing the topic, an appropriate context for the question is chosen. The context defines the clinical situation that will test the topic. This is important because it determines the type of information that should be included in the stem and the response options. Consider the following example: (Topic= Hypertension; Context= Therapy).

The basic MCQ model comprises a stem and a lead-in question followed by a number of answers (options). 19 The option which matches the key in a MCQ is best called “the correct answer” 15 and the other options are the “distracters”.

For writing a single best option type of MCQs, as shown in Appendix 1 , it is recommended that the options are written first. 23 A list of possible homogeneous options based on the selected topic and context is then generated. The options should be readily understood and as short as possible. 18 It is best to start with a list of more than five options (although only five options are usually used in the final version). This allows a couple of ‘spares’, which often come in handy! It is important that this list be HOMOGENOUS (i.e. all about diagnoses, or therapeutics, lab investigations, complications… etc) 23 and one of the options selected as the key answer to the question.

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MCQ Preparation Form

A good distracter should be inferior to the correct answer but should also be plausible to a non-competent candidate. 24 All options should be true and contain facts that are acceptable to varying degrees. The examiner would ask for the most appropriate, most common, least harmful or any other feature which is at the uppermost or lowermost point in a range. It needs to be expressed clearly that only one answer is correct. A candidate's response is considered correct if his/her selection matches the examiner's key. 15

When creating a distracter, it helps to predict how an inexperienced examinee might react to the clinical case described in the stem. 24

A question stem is then written with lead-in statement based on the selected correct option. Well-constructed MCQs should test the application of medical knowledge (context-rich) rather than just the recall of information (context- free). Schuwirth et al, 25 found that context-rich questions lead to thinking processes which represent problem solving ability better than those elicited by context-free questions. The focus should be on problems that would be encountered in clinical practice rather than an assessment of the candidate's knowledge of trivial facts or obscure problems that are seldom encountered. The types of problems that commonly encountered in one's own practice can provide good examples for the development of questions. To make testing both fair and consequentially valid, MCQs should be used strategically to test important content, and clinical competence. 19

The clinical case should begin with the presentation of a problem and followed by relevant signs, symptoms, results of diagnostic studies, initial treatment, subsequent findings, etc. In essence, all the information that is necessary for a competent candidate to answer the question should be provided in the stem. For example:

  • Age, sex (e.g., a 45-year-old man).
  • Site of care (e.g. comes to the emergency department).
  • Presenting complaint (e.g. because of a headache).
  • Duration (e.g. that has continued for 2 days).
  • Patient history (with family history).
  • Physical findings.
  • +/− Results of diagnostic studies.
  • +/− Initial treatment, subsequent findings, etc.

The lead-in question should give clear directions as to what the candidate should do to answer the question. Ambiguity and the use of imprecise terms should be avoided. 16 , 18 There is no place for trick questions in MCQ examinations. Negative stems should be avoided, as should double negatives. Always, never and only are obviously contentious in an inexact science like medicine and should not be used. 16 , 18

Consider the following examples of lead-in questions:

Example 1: Regarding myocardial infarction.

Example 2: What is the most likely diagnosis?

Note that for Example 1, no task is presented to the candidate. This type of lead-in statement will often lead to an ambiguous or unfocused question. In the second example, the task is clear and will lead to a more focused question. To ensure that the lead-in question is well constructed, the question should be answerable without looking at the response options. As a check, the response options should be covered and an attempt made to answer the question.

Well constructed MCQs should be written at a level of difficulty appropriate to level of the candidates. A reason often given for using difficult questions is that they help the examiner to identify the `cream’ of the students. However, most tests would function with greater test reliability when questions of medium difficulty are used. 26 An exception, however, would be the assessment of achievement in topic areas that all students are expected to master. Questions used here will be correctly answered by nearly all the candidates and consequently, will have high difficulty index values. On the other hand, if a few candidates are to be selected for honours, scholarships, etc., it is preferable to have an examination of the appropriately high level of difficulty specifically for that purpose. It is important to bear in mind that the level of learning is the only factor that should determine the ability of a candidate to answer a question correctly. 15

The next step is to reduce the list of option to the intended number of options which is usually five options (including, of course, the correct answer).

Lastly, the option list is to be arranged into a logical order to reduce guessing and avoid putting the correct answer in habitual location (e.g. using alphabetical order will make it possible to avoid choosing options B or C as key answers more frequently).

The role of guessing in answering MCQs has been debated extensively and a variety of approaches have been suggested to deal with the candidate who responds to questions without possessing the required level of knowledge. 27 – 29 A number of issues need closer analysis when dealing with this problem. Increasing the number of questions in a test paper will reduce the probability of passing the test by chance. 15

Once the MCQs have been written, they should be criticized by as many people as possible and they should be reviewed after their use. 16 , 18 The most common construction error encountered is the use of imprecise terms. Many MCQs used in medical education contain undefined terms. Furthermore, there is a wide range of opinions among the examiners themselves about the meanings of such vague terms. 30 The stem and options should read logically. It is easy to write items that look adequate but do not constitute proper English or do not make sense. 18

When constructing a paper from a bank of MCQs, care should be taken to ensure that there is a balanced spread of questions across the subject matter of the discipline being tested. 16 A fair or defensible MCQ exam should be closely aligned with the syllabus; be combined with practical competence testing; sample taken broadly from important content and be free from construction errors. 19

Extended Matching Items (EMIs)

Several analytic approaches have been used to obtain the optimal number of response options for multiple-choice items. 31 – 35 Focus has shifted from traditional 3–5 branches to larger numbers of branches. This may be 20-30 in the case of extended-matching questions (EMIs), or up to 500 for open-ended or ‘uncued’ formats. 36 However, the use of smaller numbers of options (and more items) results in a more efficient use of testing time. 37

Extended-matching items are multiple choice items organized into sets that use one list of options for all items in the set. There is a theme, an option list, a lead-in statement and at least two item stems. A typical set of EMIs begins with an option list of four to 26 options; more than ten options are usually used. The option list is followed by two or more patient-based items requiring the examinee to indicate a clinical decision for each item. The candidate is asked to match one or more options to each item stem.

Extended matching items have become popular in such specialties as internal and family medicine because they can be used to test diagnostic ability and clinical judgment. 15 Its use likely to increase in postgraduate examinations as well as in undergraduate assessment. 21 Computer-based extended matching items have been used for in-course continuous assessment. 38

EMIs are more difficult, more reliable, more discriminating, and capable of reducing the testing time. In addition, they are quicker and easier to write than other test formats. 39 , 40 Over the past 20 years, multiple studies have found that EMI-based tests are more reproducible (reliable) than other multiple-choice question (MCQ) formats aimed at the assessment of medical decision making. 20 , 41 , 42 There is a wealth of evidence that EMIs are the fairest format. 19

Another more recent development is uncued questions where answers are picked from a list of several hundred choices. These have been advocated for use in assessing clinical judgment, 43 but extended matching questions have surprisingly been shown to be as statistically reliable and valid as uncued queries. 20 , 41 , 44

Extended matching questions overcome the problem of cueing by increasing the number of options and are a compromise between free-response questions and MCQs. This offers an objective assessment that is both reliable and easy to mark. 45 – 47

Nevertheless, MCQs have strengths and weaknesses and those responsible for setting MCQ papers may consider investigating the viability and value of including some questions in the extended matching format. Item writers should be encouraged to use the EMI format with a large number of options because of the efficiencies this approach affords in item preparation. 20 , 39

For the construction of EMIs the following steps are suggested ( Appendix 2 ):

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Preparation of Extended Matching Item (EMI)

Step 1: The selection of the system, the context, and the theme should be based on a blueprint. Otherwise, the following sequence should be followed:

Example: Respiratory system .

Example: Laboratory investigations .

Example: Respiratory Tract Infection .

Step 2: Write the lead-in statement.

Example: Which is the best specimen to send to the Microbiology laboratory for confirmation of the diagnosis ?

Step 3: Prepare the options: Make a list of 10-15 homogenous options. For example, they should all be diagnoses, managements, blood gas values, enzymes, prognoses, etc, and each should be short (normally only one or two words).

Example of options :

  • – Sputum bacterial culture .
  • – Nasal swab .
  • – Blood for C-reactive protein .
  • – Blood culture .
  • – Perinasal swab .
  • – Cough swab .
  • – Throat swab .
  • – Bronchioalveolar lavage .
  • – Urine for antigen detection .
  • – Single clotted blood specimen .

Step 4: Select two to three of the options as the correct answers (keys).

  • – Sputum bacterial culture.
  • – Blood culture.
  • – Bronchioalveolar lavage.

Step 5: The question stems or scenarios: Write two to three vignettes (case scenarios) that suit the selected options, to form the question stem. The scenarios should not be overly complex and should contain only relevant information. This should normally be between two and five sentences in length. For the questions:

  • Use patient scenarios.
  • Include key patient information.
  • Structure all similar scenarios in one group (do not mix adult and paediatric scenarios).
  • Scenarios should be straightforward.

Scenarios for most of the options for possible use in future examinations can be written.

  • - A 21-year-old man severely ill with lobar pneumonia .
  • - A 68-year-old woman with an exacerbation of COPD .
  • - A 60-year-old man with strongly suspected TB infection on whom three previous sputum specimens have been film (smear) negative .

N.B: The response options are first written and then the appropriate scenario built for each one.

Step 6: Ensure validity and discrimination:

Look at other options in the provisional list and delete any that suits the written case scenario or that is clearly wrong or plausible.

Step 7: Reduce the option list to the intended number e.g. (10-15 options for a two case scenarios).

Step 8: Review the questions and ensure that there is only one best answer for each question. Ensure that there are at least four reasonable (plausible) distracters for each scenario and ensure that the reasons for matching are clear. It is advisable to ask a colleague to review the EMIs without the answers. If the colleague has difficulty, modify the option list or scenario as appropriate.

The following is a sample:

Respiratory Tract Infection

For the following patients, which is the best specimen to send to the Microbiology laboratory for confirmation of the diagnosis ?

A 21-year-old man severely ill with lobar pneumonia . (d)

A 6- year-old woman with an exacerbation of COPD . (a)

A 60-year-old man with strongly suspected TB infection on whom three previous sputum specimens have been film (smear) negative . (h)

  • Sputum bacterial culture.
  • Nasal swab.
  • Blood for C-reactive protein.
  • Blood culture.
  • Perinasal swab.
  • Cough swab.
  • Throat swab.
  • Bronchioalveolar lavage.
  • Urine for antigen detection.
  • Single clotted blood specimen.

It is advisable for the writer of MCQ to use templates for the construction of a single best option MCQ in both basic sciences and physician (clinical) tasks. 48

Although the topics in basic sciences could be tested by recall type MCQs, as was discussed earlier, case scenario questions are preferable. Therefore, the focus here will be on this type of questions. The components of patient vignettes for possible inclusion were also described earlier.

Patient Vignettes

  • - A (patient description) has a (type of injury and location). Which of the following structures is most likely to be affected?
  • - A (patient description) has (history findings) and is taking (medications). Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of his (one history, physical examination or lab finding)?
  • - A (patient description) has (abnormal findings). Which [additional] finding would suggest/suggests a diagnosis of (disease 1) rather than (disease 2)?
  • - A (patient description) has (symptoms and signs). These observations suggest that the disease is a result of the (absence or presence) of which of the following (enzymes, mechanisms)?
  • - A (patient description) follows a (specific dietary regime); which of the following conditions is most likely to occur?
  • - A (patient description) has (symptoms, signs, or specific disease) and is being treated with (drug or drug class). The drug acts by inhibiting which of the following (functions, processes)?
  • - (Time period) after a (event such as trip or meal with certain foods), a (patient or group description) became ill with (symptoms and signs). Which of the following (organisms, agents) is most likely to be found on analysis of (food)?
  • - Following (procedure), a (patient description) develops (symptoms and signs). Laboratory findings show (findings). Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Sample Lead-ins and Option Lists

Option sets could include sites of lesions; list of nerves; list of muscles; list of enzymes; list of hormones; types of cells; list of neurotransmitters; list of toxins, molecules, vessels, and spinal segments.

Option sets could include a list of laboratory results; list of additional physical signs; autopsy results; results of microscopic examination of fluids, muscle or joint tissue; DNA analysis results, and serum levels.

Option sets could include a list of underlying mechanisms of the disease; drugs or drug classes that might cause side effects; toxic agents; hemodynamic mechanisms, viruses, and metabolic defects.

Items Related to Physician Tasks 48

The classic diagnosis item begins with a patient description (including age, sex, symptoms and signs and their duration, history, physical findings on exam, findings on diagnostic and lab studies) and ends with a question:

  • - Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
  • - Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
  • - Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

Management:

Questions to ask include:

  • - Which of the following is the most appropriate initial or next step in patient care?
  • - Which of the following is the most effective management?
  • - Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
  • - Which of the following is the first priority in caring for this patient? (eg, in the emergency department).

Health and Health Maintenance:

The following lead-ins are examples of those used in this category:

  • - Which of the following immunizations should be administered at this time?
  • - Which of the following is the most appropriate screening test?
  • - Which of the following tests would have predicted these findings?
  • - Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
  • - For which of the following conditions is the patient at greatest risk?
  • - Which of the following is most likely to have prevented this condition?
  • - Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management to prevent [morbidity/mortality/disability]?
  • - Which of the following should be recommended to prevent disability from this injury/condition?
  • - Early treatment with which of the following is most likely to have prevented this patient's condition?
  • - Supplementation with which of the following is most likely to have prevented this condition?

Mechanisms of Disease:

Begin your mechanism items with a clinical vignette of a patient and his/her symptoms, signs, history, laboratory results, etc., then ask a question such as one of these:

  • - Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
  • - Which of the following is the most likely location of the patient's lesion?
  • - Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
  • - Which of the following findings is most likely to be increased/decreased?
  • - A biopsy is most likely to show which of the following?

ACKNOWLEDGMENT

The author wishes to gratefully acknowledge and express his gratitude to all professors who have provided him with comments, with special gratitude to Professor Eiad A. Al Faris, Professor Ahmed A. Abdel Hameed and Dr. Ibrahim A Alorainy (College of Medicine, King Saud University) for their support.

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